Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
PIL is a significant aspect of judicial activism and the Indian legal system, impacting governance, fundamental rights, and social justice. UPSC frequently asks about its evolution, scope, limitations, and impact.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is a legal mechanism in India that allows any public-spirited citizen or organization to approach the court on behalf of a section of the public whose rights are violated, or to address issues of public importance. It emerged in the late 1970s and early 1980s as a tool for judicial activism and access to justice.
Facts & tables
- Relaxed Locus Standi
- The traditional rule of locus standi is relaxed, allowing third parties to file petitions on behalf of others.
- Jurisdiction
- Can be filed in the Supreme Court (Article 32) or High Courts (Article 226) of India.
- Objectives
- Aims to promote social justice, protect fundamental rights, and ensure good governance.
- Scope
- Often involves issues like environmental protection, human rights, and welfare of marginalized groups.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Supreme Court of India | Hears and adjudicates pils |
| High Courts | Hears and adjudicates pils |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
Prelims angle: Institutional roles and functions
- Relaxed locus standi for public causes.
- Filed under Art 32 (SC) or Art 226 (HC).
- Tool for judicial activism and social justice.
- Aims for rights protection and good governance.
- Can address broad public grievances.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2024 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2022 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2021 | Conceptual understanding, Factual recall |
| 2019 | Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2018 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2014 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2014
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2018
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2019
Conceptual understanding, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2021
Conceptual understanding, Factual recall
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Prelims 2022
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2023
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2024
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
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Delhi HC dismisses PIL over Sonam Wangchuk’s removal from Jantar Mantar
PIL is a judicial innovation allowing public-spirited individuals to seek legal redress for public grievances, relaxing traditional locus standi rules to ensure broader access to justice and uphold fundamental rights.
See also
Past papers
2014–2024 · 8 questions
In the news
Delhi HC dismisses PIL over Sonam Wangchuk’s removal from Jantar Mantar
PIL is a judicial innovation allowing public-spirited individuals to seek legal redress for public grievances, relaxing traditional locus standi rules to ensure broader access to justice and uphold fundamental rights.
Try these PYQs
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Article 142 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders and decrees necessary to ensure "complete justice" in any case before it. This power is vast and extraordinary. Article 142 allows the Supreme Court to ensure that ordinary laws comply with the Constitution and that complete justice is delivered. Even if an ordinary law creates limitations, the Supreme Court can override it using Article 142 to achieve a just outcome.
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
* The Supreme Court of India, in its landmark judgment in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India (2017), declared that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right enshrined in the Constitution of India. * The court held that this right is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. * Article 21: States that 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.' The court interpreted 'personal liberty' broadly to include various aspects of privacy. _While the other options are fundamental rights, they are not directly where the Right to Privacy is placed:_ * Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. * Article 16: Guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. * Article 19: Guarantees certain freedoms like speech and expression, assembly, etc.
‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
The right to privacy in India is not explicitly mentioned in a single article of the Constitution. However, it is considered an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to life and liberty guaranteed under Article 21. This recognition came about through a landmark Supreme Court judgment in 2017, K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India. The court ruled that the right to privacy is an inseparable part of the right to life and personal liberty, and is protected under Article 21.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of the administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement I is correct: It has frequently been argued that reservation is contrary to efficiency and merit. Even the Supreme Court of India appeared to have agreed with this argument in some of its judgments, holding that Article 335 mention of the term efficiency of administration will limit the scope of Article 16(4) provision for reservation in services. * Statement II is incorrect: Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. * Article 335 of the Indian Constitution only mentions the efficiency of administration and does not define the same.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
Article 131 of the Constitution of India provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between the different units of the Indian Federation such as between the Centre and one or more states and, between the states.
Show 3 more PYQs
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles. Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.
With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose. It is usually not usable against a private entity unless it is entrusted with a public duty. Statement 2 is correct: As explained above, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company when it is discharging a "public duty", so the statement is incomplete. Public Duty is Key: Mandamus aims to compel performance of a public duty, not just private functions. Statement 3 is correct: Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Note (on Statement 2): In UPSC Prelims, statements must be judged as written, without adding extra conditions. A company does not become subject to the writ of Mandamus only because it is a Government company. Government ownership by itself is not enough. Since Statement 2 is framed in this limited and absolute sense, and no additional condition like “public duty” is mentioned, the statement is treated as correct.