Judicial Pendency and Reforms in India
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
The issue of judicial pendency directly impacts the rule of law, access to justice, and the efficiency of the third pillar of Indian democracy. UPSC examines its causes, consequences, and proposed solutions as a critical governance challenge.
Judicial pendency refers to the backlog of cases awaiting resolution in courts, leading to significant delays in justice delivery. It is a persistent and critical challenge for the Indian judiciary, impacting fundamental rights, public trust, and the overall efficiency of the legal system.
Facts & tables
- High volume of pending cases
- Across all court levels, including the Supreme Court (e.g., 93,966 cases mentioned).
- Key contributing factors
- Include excessive Special Leave Petitions (SLPs), government as a major litigant, and frivolous Public Interest Litigations (PILs).
- Consequences
- Involve delayed justice, erosion of public trust, and increased costs for litigants.
- Proposed reforms
- Include increasing judge strength, developing robust filtering mechanisms, and implementing a consistent National Litigation Policy.
| Cause | Proposed Reform |
|---|---|
| Excessive Special Leave Petitions (SLPs) | Robust filtering mechanisms; clearer guidelines for Article 136 |
| Government as major litigant | Consistent National Litigation Policy (NLP) |
| Frivolous Public Interest Litigations (PILs) | Strict application of PIL guidelines |
| Insufficient judicial strength | Increase in sanctioned judge strength (with caveats) |
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Judicial Administration |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Supreme Court of India | Faces pendency, implements reforms |
| Union Government | Legislates on judge strength, major litigant |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Statement-based questions
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Pendency: backlog of cases, delays justice.
- Causes: SLPs, govt litigation, frivolous PILs.
- Consequences: erosion of trust, fundamental rights impact.
- Reforms: judge strength, filtering, NLP, tech.
- Debate: increasing strength alone is insufficient.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis |
| 2023 | Factual recall, Conceptual understanding |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2021 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2020 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2019 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2018 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2014 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Judicial Administration
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2014
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2018
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2019
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2020
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2021
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2023
Factual recall, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2025
Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis
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Will increasing the strength of the SC solve the pendency problem?
Judicial pendency is the backlog of cases in Indian courts, driven by factors like SLPs, government litigation, and frivolous PILs. It delays justice and erodes trust. Reforms include increasing judge strength, filtering mechanisms, and a National Litigation Policy.
See also
Dashed boxes: related topics without a notes page yet. Tap a solid box to open notes.
Past papers
2014–2025 · 7 questions
In the news
Will increasing the strength of the SC solve the pendency problem?
Judicial pendency is the backlog of cases in Indian courts, driven by factors like SLPs, government litigation, and frivolous PILs. It delays justice and erodes trust. Reforms include increasing judge strength, filtering mechanisms, and a National Litigation Policy.
Try these PYQs
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Judge of a High Court (who is duly qualified) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is not correct: Although there is no explicit Article in the Constitution equivalent to Article 137 (which grants review power to the SC) for High Courts, the High Courts are "Courts of Record" under Article 215. As a Court of Record, a High Court has the inherent power to review its own orders and judgments to correct any patent error or prevent a miscarriage of justice. This has been affirmed by the Supreme Court in various rulings.
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
* The First Amendment Act, of 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled * Tribes. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution. * The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended. * Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19. Note: UPSC deleted this question when the final answer key was issued.
Consider the following statements :
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, explicitly gives the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) the discretion to either admit or refuse to admit a motion for the removal of a judge. If the motion is not in order or is deemed frivolous, the Speaker can reject it at the initial stage itself. This power was notably exercised by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in 2018 when he rejected an impeachment motion against the then Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The terms "incapacity" and "proven misbehaviour", which are grounds for the removal of a judge under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, are not explicitly defined in the Constitution. Their interpretation has evolved through judicial pronouncements and parliamentary discussions. Statement 3 is correct: The constitutional provisions related to the removal of judges are found in Articles 124(4), 124(5), 217, and 218. Additionally, the process is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which outlines the procedural framework for investigating misconduct and incapacity. Statement 4 is correct: As per Article 124(4) of the Constitution, for a motion seeking the removal of a Supreme Court or High Court judge to proceed, it must be passed by:
- A majority of the total membership of the House, and
- A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of the administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
* Statement I is correct: It has frequently been argued that reservation is contrary to efficiency and merit. Even the Supreme Court of India appeared to have agreed with this argument in some of its judgments, holding that Article 335 mention of the term efficiency of administration will limit the scope of Article 16(4) provision for reservation in services. * Statement II is incorrect: Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. * Article 335 of the Indian Constitution only mentions the efficiency of administration and does not define the same.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "basic structure" is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, there are certain features of the Constitution that form its basic structure and cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by Parliament. Although the basic structure doctrine includes elements such as federalism, secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, these features are not explicitly listed as the 'basic structure' in the Constitution itself. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the power of judicial review. Instead, this power is derived from various provisions, particularly Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246. Judicial review allows the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they do not violate fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions. This power is essential in maintaining the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens' rights. Hence, neither of the statements is correct.
Show 3 more PYQs
The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
According to article 124(1), There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than thirty-three other Judges.
Thus, the Constitution vests the authority to increase the number of Judges in the Parliament.
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
❌ Statement I: Incorrect
*The President of India is NOT a member of the Jury.* ✅ Statement II: Correct
*The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the Jury.* ✅ Statement III: Correct
*The Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the CJI) is a Jury member.* ✅ Statement IV: Correct
*The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of largest opposition party) is a Jury member.* Correct Answer: Statements II, III, and IV are correct.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review, even if they violated Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). Statement 2 is incorrect: The protection under the Ninth Schedule is not absolute. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and reaffirmed in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, can still be challenged if they violate the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Thus, while the Ninth Schedule provides a degree of protection, the Supreme Court retains the power to review laws that undermine the Constitution’s core principles. Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.