Governance of Union Territories with Legislatures
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Tests understanding of India's federal structure, special constitutional provisions, and the dynamics of governance in unique administrative units, particularly the power-sharing challenges between elected governments and centrally appointed administrators.
Union Territories (UTs) are directly administered by the Central Government. However, some UTs like Puducherry, Delhi, and Jammu & Kashmir have been granted a legislative assembly and a Council of Ministers, creating a unique governance model where an elected government coexists with a Lieutenant Governor (LG) appointed by the President.
Facts & tables
- Constitutional Basis
- Article 239A (Puducherry), Article 239AA (Delhi) provide for local legislatures and Council of Ministers.
- Lieutenant Governor's Role
- Acts as the administrator, often with more discretionary powers than a State Governor, leading to potential friction with the elected government.
- Legislative Powers
- Limited compared to states, with certain subjects reserved or requiring Presidential assent.
- Financial Autonomy
- Often dependent on central grants and subject to greater central oversight.
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Federal Structure & Centre-State Relations |
| Conceptual area | Constitutional & Statutory Bodies |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| Lieutenant Governor | Administrator |
| Legislative Assembly (UT) | Legislative body |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Factual recall
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
- Hybrid governance: Elected CM & Council of Ministers + LG.
- Constitutional basis: Art 239A (Puducherry), Art 239AA (Delhi).
- LG's discretionary powers often lead to friction.
- Limited legislative and financial autonomy compared to states.
- Key aspect of India's quasi-federal structure.
Ministry sets policy; regulator often has quasi-judicial powers.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2019 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2017 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2013 | Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis |
Timeline
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Federal Structure & Centre-State Relations
Conceptual area
-
Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
Conceptual area
-
Prelims 2013
Factual recall, Multi-statement analysis
-
Prelims 2017
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
-
Prelims 2019
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
-
Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
-
Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
-
In Puducherry, a budget without a proper government
UTs with legislatures have a hybrid governance model involving an elected government and an LG, often leading to power-sharing disputes and administrative complexities due to the LG's enhanced role compared to state governors.
See also
Past papers
2013–2025 · 8 questions
In the news
In Puducherry, a budget without a proper government
UTs with legislatures have a hybrid governance model involving an elected government and an LG, often leading to power-sharing disputes and administrative complexities due to the LG's enhanced role compared to state governors.
Try these PYQs
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
The National Development Council (NDC) in India is comprised of the following members: * The Prime Minister (who chairs the council)
* Ministers of the Union Cabinet
* Chief Ministers of the States The Chairman, Finance Commission - while the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending the devolution of financial resources from the central government to the states, the Chairman is not a member of the NDC. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 244(1) of the Constitution's Fifth Schedule, Scheduled Areas are areas that the President may declare to be such by order after consultation with the Governor of that State. * Statement 2 is correct: District is considered as the largest administrative unit which forms the Scheduled Area while the lowest administrative unit is the cluster of villages in the Block. * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India states in para 3 that the Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the Administration of the said areas.
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, it continues to be administered by the State Government, but with special powers granted to the Governor for tribal welfare. ❌ Statement I: Incorrect The State Government does not lose its executive powers. There is no provision for a local body to take over full administration. ❌ Statement II: Incorrect The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
Show 3 more PYQs
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Which of the above-given statements is correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory. The Assembly may either be dissolved (leading to fresh elections) or kept under suspension (placing it in a state of dormancy until further decisions are made). Statement 2 is incorrect: When President’s Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the Council of Ministers is always dismissed, as the state government is suspended and the Governor takes over the executive powers on behalf of the President. Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of local bodies is not a direct consequence of President’s Rule. Since municipalities and panchayats function independently under the State List (as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments), their existence remains unaffected unless the state government had already initiated their dissolution through legal provisions. Thus, while the removal of the Council of Ministers is automatic, the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly is conditional, and local bodies remain largely unaffected. Hence, the correct answer is option (B) 1 and 3 only.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
The Sarkaria Commission was established by the Government of India in 1983 to review Centre-State relations and recommend improvements. One of its key areas of focus was the appointment of Governors. Recommendations on the Appointment of Governor: - The Governor should be an eminent person with a distinguished record in public life. - The person must be from outside the State to ensure impartiality in administration. - The Governor should not have participated in active politics for some time prior to the appointment. - He should be a detached figure, not closely linked to local politics, to maintain neutrality. - The appointment process should involve wider consultation, including the Chief Minister of the State, the Vice President of India, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. These recommendations were aimed at ensuring that the Governor functions as an independent and neutral constitutional authority, rather than a political appointee of the ruling party at the Centre.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join. * Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.