Federal Aspects of Law Enforcement and Criminal Justice
Indian Polity & Governance
- PYQs8
- Articles1
Background
Essential for understanding the constitutional division of powers, cooperative federalism, and the practical challenges of implementing national policies in areas of state jurisdiction.
The Indian Constitution, through its Seventh Schedule, delineates powers between the Centre and States, placing 'Police' and 'Public Order' primarily under the State List, thereby making State Governments responsible for law enforcement and criminal justice administration.
Facts & tables
- Constitutional Provision
- 'Police' and 'Public Order' are State List subjects (Seventh Schedule)
- Primary Responsibility
- States/UTs for maintaining law and order, investigation, and prosecution
- Central Government Role
- Supplements State efforts through financial support and capacity building
- Support Schemes
- ICJS 2.0, schemes for modernisation of forensic capacities, Nirbhaya Fund
| Type | Reference |
|---|---|
| Conceptual area | Indian Polity & Governance |
| Body | Role |
|---|---|
| State/UT Governments | Implements |
| Central Government | Supports |
| Ministry of Home Affairs | Policy formulation |
Prelims angle
Prelims angle: Multi-statement analysis
Prelims angle: Conceptual understanding
- Police & Public Order: State List subjects.
- States primarily responsible for law enforcement.
- Centre provides financial aid (ICJS 2.0, Nirbhaya Fund).
- Capacity building by central agencies (BPR&D) for state personnel.
- Illustrates cooperative federalism in practice.
| Year | Framing tags |
|---|---|
| 2026 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall |
| 2025 | Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding |
| 2024 | Statement-based questions, Factual recall |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2023 | Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding |
| 2016 | Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions |
| 2013 | Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions |
Timeline
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Indian Polity & Governance
Conceptual area
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Prelims 2013
Multi-statement analysis, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2016
Factual recall, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Institutional roles and functions
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Prelims 2023
Statement-based questions, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2024
Statement-based questions, Factual recall
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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Prelims 2025
Multi-statement analysis, Conceptual understanding
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Prelims 2026
Multi-statement analysis, Factual recall
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IMPLEMENTATION OF NEW CRIMINAL LAWS
Explores the constitutional division of powers where states manage law enforcement, while the Centre provides supplementary support for infrastructure and capacity building.
See also
Past papers
2013–2026 · 8 questions
In the news
IMPLEMENTATION OF NEW CRIMINAL LAWS
Explores the constitutional division of powers where states manage law enforcement, while the Centre provides supplementary support for infrastructure and capacity building.
Try these PYQs
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Statement I is Correct: Any change in the Union List alters the distribution of legislative powers and requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Statement II is Correct: Changes affecting the extent of a State’s executive power also need ratification by not less than one-half of the States. Statement III is Incorrect: Conditions of the Governor’s office can be amended by Parliament alone and do not require ratification by States.
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 244(1) of the Constitution's Fifth Schedule, Scheduled Areas are areas that the President may declare to be such by order after consultation with the Governor of that State. * Statement 2 is correct: District is considered as the largest administrative unit which forms the Scheduled Area while the lowest administrative unit is the cluster of villages in the Block. * Statement 3 is incorrect: The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India states in para 3 that the Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the Administration of the said areas.
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India can legislate on a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be approved by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once passed, this resolution empowers Parliament to make laws on the specified subject for a period of one year, which can be extended further by passing another resolution.
Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) is not an organ of the Planning Commission. It's an independent advisory body headed by the Prime Minister and includes Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the NITI Aayog (successor to the Planning Commission). It was set up on 6 August 1952. Statement 2 is correct: Economic and Social Planning is listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution (Article 243G) empowers Panchayats (local village governments) to prepare plans for economic development and social justice at the village level. This promotes decentralized planning and community participation. Hence, statement one is incorrect and statements two and three are correct. _Note: While the NDC was proposed to be abolished, it has not been formally dissolved, although its powers have largely been transferred to the NITI Aayog's Governing Council._
Consider the following pairs:
State – Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
This question tests knowledge of historical and administrative facts about northeastern Indian states. ✅ Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
* Itanagar, the capital, is named after Ita Fort.
* The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. ✅ Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
* Nagaland attained statehood via a constitutional amendment and came into being on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. ✅ Pair III: Tripura – Correct
* Tripura was a Part 'C' state, became a Union Territory in 1956, and was granted statehood in 1972.
Show 3 more PYQs
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
* Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed an All India Federation that would encompass both the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never fully materialized due to the reluctance of many Princely States to join. * Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act reserved key subjects like Defence and Foreign Affairs under the control of the Governor General, representing the British Crown, and not the federal legislature. This ensured British dominance in these crucial areas.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The Prisons Act 1894 is one of the oldest pieces of legislation in India dealing with laws enacted in relation to prisons in India. * Statement 1 is correct: Prison is a State subject under List-II of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution. States have the primary role, responsibility, and power to change the current prison laws, rules, and regulations. Hence it is true that prisons are managed by the state governments with their own rules and regulations. * Statement 2 is correct: The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments and is governed by the Prisons Act, of 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. * Hence it is true that the Prisons Act of 1894 kept the subject of prisons in the Provincial government (State governments) and this explains why State governments have the power to frame their own rules and regulations regarding prison management.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period), not from 1st April 2021. Statement 2 is Correct: The primary objective of the revamped scheme is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It focuses on the localization of SDGs at the grassroots level through inclusive local governance. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Revamped RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared between the Centre and the States. It is not 100% centrally funded for all States and UTs. The sharing pattern is 60:40 (Centre:State) for general category States, and 90:10 for North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir. 100% Central funding applies only to other Union Territories and specific Central components of the scheme. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.